Contact Hours for Family Nurse Practitioner Review and Resource Manual

Expiration Date: December 31, 2008. No CE contact hours (CH) will be given after this date.

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This continuing education module should be taken ONLY by those who have purchased the Adult Nurse Practitioner Review and Resource Manual, 2nd Edition. During the process of purchasing this CE module, you will be asked to input the proof of purchase code which can be obtained by sending an e-mail to revmanuals@ana.org.

The actual questions that will be on the test have been posted below. The link to the test is at the bottom of the page.

When you purchase the CE module, you will be issued a password which will allow you to access all CE modules purchased on the NursingWorld Web site. This password is NOT to be confused with the proof of purchase code you received when you purchased the manual. It is important that you remember this password, as you MUST use it if you wish to log out of the system and return at a later time to take the test or to print duplicates of your certificate of completion.

IMPORTANT NOTE: The test for Contact Hours for Adult Nurse Practitioner Review and Resource Manual, 2nd Edition contains 20 questions. You may find that you are not able to complete the entire test in one sitting. If this is the case, simply click on "Grade My Test" at the bottom of the test page even though you have not yet completed the test. This will allow the system to store your test for your return visit.

When you wish to return, click on "Log Back In" from the CE home page menu and input the CE password you were issued when you first registered for ANA's online CE. Again, do not input the purchse code you were issued as proof of purchase of the manual. Once you are logged back into the system, you will see a list of the ISMs you have completed and ones that are incomplete. Click on "Take Test" next to any incomplete ISM and you will be told how many questions you have completed and how many are left to complete.

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Test Questions

1. Which is a risk factor for molloscum contagiosum?

    a. A CD4+ count < 100 cells/uL
    b. Recurrent exposure to irritants
    c. Cigarette smoking
    d. Being female
2. A 52-year-old male who has enjoyed good health comes to the office today with a chief complaint of a “red rash” on his face. Physical examination reveals a bright, rosy discoloration of the nose and cheeks. Which of the following comorbid ophthalmic conditions can occur with these symptoms?
    a. Conjunctivitis
    b. Uveitis
    c. Blepharitis
    d. Wide angle glaucoma
3. While evaluating a patient who has lesions consistent with psoriasis, the nurse practitioner removes one of the scales and a drop of blood appears. This is consistent with psoriasis and is known as:
    a. Auspitz sign.
    b. Koebner phenomenon.
    c. Psoriatic arthritis.
    d. Guttate psoriasis.
4. Cushing syndrome is suspected in which patient?
    a. A 19-year-old male with hypertension and hypokalemia
    b. A 44-year old female with hypotension and hyperpigmentation
    c. A 27-year-old male with arthralgias, polyuria, and neutropenia
    d. A 67-year-old female with hypoglycemia, purple straie, and muscle wasting
5. Which organ abnormality can result from hemochromatosis?
    a. Idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura
    b. Cirrhosis of the liver
    c. Cardiomegaly
    d. End-stage renal failure
6. Which sign/symptom makes the nurse practitioner suspicious that a patient is subject to abuse?
    a. The patient is very angry, verbalizing a series of unrealistic “plots” to “get back at” the abuser
    b. Denial of pain despite injuries that are strongly suggestive
    c. Significant delay between the time of injury and seeking of treatment
    d. A preoccupation with elimination functions
7. Which infectious disease is best known for its devastating effects on a developing fetus?
    a. Herpes simplex virus
    b. Rubeola
    c. Herpesvirsus 3
    d. Rubella
8. Which class of medications is not indicated for the management of fibromyalgia?
    a. Tricyclic antidepressants
    b. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
    c. Skeletal muscle relaxants
    d. Corticosteroids
9. The most common cause of adrenal insufficiency is:
    a. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia.
    b. Metastatic carcinoma.
    c. Autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands.
    d. Primary pituitary failure.
10. Life-threatening disturbances of autonomic function are a potential danger in patients with:
    a. Myasthenia gravis.
    b. Guillain-Barre syndrome.
    c. Multiple sclerosis.
    d. Parkinsonism.
11. Digital rectal examination of a patient reveals left lateral induration and two nodules that are firm to palpation. This finding is most consistent with:
    a. Acute prostatitis.
    b. Non-bacterial prostatitis.
    c. Benign prostatic hyperplasia.
    d. Prostate malignancy.
12. Examination of the uterine fundus in a woman who is 16 weeks pregnant reveals a fundus palpable:
    a. at the symphysis pubis.
    b. at the umbilicus.
    c. 16 cm above the symphysis pubis.
    d. Midway between the symphysis pubis and umbilicus.
13. Which laboratory values suggest Addison disease as a result of pituitary failure?
    a. Elevated serum cortisol and elevated serum ACTH
    b. Decreased serum cortisol and decreased serum ACTH
    c. Elevated serum cortisol and decreased serum ACTH
    d. Decreased serum cortisol and elevated serum ACTH
14. The nurse practitioner examines a female whose chief complaint is pelvic pain and discovers a palpable adnexal mass. The patient admits that she has had some spotting recently. The nurse practitioner suspects:
    a. pelvic inflammatory disease.
    b. dysmenorrhea.
    c. ectopic pregnancy.
    d. secondary amenorrhea.
15. Which statement is true regarding the management of scabies?
    a. Permethrin is generally the drug of choice
    b. Lindane is safe in those > 2 months old
    c. Pruritus should resolve within 7 to 10 days
    d. Pyoderma is a common manifestation
16. Which is included in the treatment plan for polycythemia vera?
    a. Iron supplementation
    b. An platelet aggregate inhibitor
    c. Serial phlebotomy
    d. Hydroxyurea
17. Which is a diagnostic feature shared by anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa? a
    . The gender/socioeconomic epidemiology
    b. Age of onset
    c. Physical findings
    d. Treatment setting
18. During a routine health screening the nurse practitioner appreciates a unilateral breast mass on a 35-year-old patient. The mass is smooth, well-defined, and “rubbery” in consistency. The nurse practitioner suspects:
    a. malignancy.
    b. fibrocystic breast disease.
    c. an abscess.
    d. a fibroadenoma.
19. Which lesion carries the risk of progression to malignancy?
    a. Seborrheic keratosis
    b. Actinic keratosis
    c. Solar lentigo
    d. Cherry angioma
20. Bowen disease is a form of:
    a. Premalignant keratosis
    b. Malignant melanoma
    c. Squamous cell carcinoma
    d. Pityriasis rosea

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