Contact Hours for Pediatric Nurse Practitioner Review and Resource Manual

Expiration Date: December 31, 2008. No CE contact hours (CH) will be given after this date.


 

This continuing education module should be taken ONLY by those who have purchased the Cardiac Vascular Review and Resource Manual, September 2006 Edition. During the process of purchasing this CE module, you will be asked to input the proof of purchase code which can be obtained by sending an e-mail to revmanuals@ana.org.

The actual questions that will be on the test have been posted below.

When you purchase the CE module, you will be issued a password which will allow you to access all CE modules purchased on the NursingWorld Web site. This password is NOT to be confused with the proof of purchase code you received when you purchased the manual. It is important that you remember this password, as you MUST use it if you wish to log out of the system and return at a later time to take the test or to print duplicates of your certificate of completion.

IMPORTANT NOTE: The test for Contact Hours for Cardiac Vascular Review and Resource Manual contains 25 questions. You may find that you are not able to complete the entire test in one sitting. If this is the case, simply click on "Grade My Test" at the bottom of the test page even though you have not yet completed the test. This will allow the system to store your test for your return visit.

When you wish to return, click on "Log Back In" from the CE home page menu and input the CE password you were issued when you first registered for ANA's online CE. Again, do not input the purchase code you were issued as proof of purchase of the manual. Once you are logged back into the system, you will see a list of the ISMs you have completed and ones that are incomplete. Click on "Take Test" next to any incomplete ISM and you will be told how many questions you have completed and how many are left to complete.


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Test Questions

1. Which term describes a psychosocial response to an actual or perceived threat that is characterized by feelings of apprehension and uneasiness?

a. Anger
b. Depression
c. Anxiety
d. Dependence

2. Mr. Vincent, a 55 year-old male, had coronary artery bypass surgery two days ago. His vital signs are: Temp 96.8° F(36° C); HR 162 beats/min.; Resp. 30 breaths/min.; BP 82/30 mm Hg with pulsus paradoxus. His echocardiogram shows a large pericardial effusion. The most likely cause of his symptoms are:

a. ventricular tachycardia.
b. acute heart failure.
c. cardiogenic shock.
d. cardiac tamponade.

3. Patients who report symptoms suggestive of acute myocardial infarction while at home are instructed to call:

a. primary care provider's office.
b. cardiologist's answering service.
c. 911 or emergency medical services.
d. family members.

4. ECG signs of myocardial injury include:

a. ST segment elevation.
b. ST segment depression.
c. Q waves that are 0.03 second wide and 0.03 mm deep.
d. Wide, flat T waves.

5. Which best describes a venous duplex?

a. An invasive test of venous valvular function
b. Used to assess venous pressure
c. Highly sensitive test for deep venous thrombosis (DVT)
d. Not repeated more than once in a lifetime

6. What does the nurse expect to find when examining a patient with a 5-year history of poorly controlled HTN?

a. Right atrial dilation
b. Right ventricular hypertrophy
c. Left atrial dilation
d. Left ventricular hypertrophy

7. Modifiable risk factors for HTN and cardiovascular disease include:

a. Age and gender
b. Positive family history and tobacco use
c. Obesity and sedentary lifestyle
d. Consumption of high carbohydrate diet

8. Which is considered a CHD equivalent?

a. Hypertension
b. Alzheimer's dementia
c. Diabetes mellitus
d. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)

9. Individuals with cardiac or vascular disease are asked about allergy to iodine or shellfish because:

a. fish is used to lower cholesterol level during acute illness.
b. there is a high incidence of thyroid dysfunction among individuals with cardiac and vascular disease.
c. the contrast dye that is used in common diagnostic studies of the cardiac and vascular system contains iodine.
d. individuals who are allergic to iodine are likely to be allergic to cardiac anti-dysrhythmic drugs.

10. Which heart sound is suggestive of mitral regurgitation?

a. A diastolic murmur
b. A systolic murmur
c. An extra heart sound heard early in diastole
d. An extra heart sound heard early in systole

11. The primary method of action of angiotensin-converting-enzyme (ACE) inhibitors results in:

a. heart rate reduction.
b. reduced risk of thromboembolic events.
c. reduction of neurohormonal stimulation.
d. prevention of lethal arrhythmias.

12. A female patient is 5 ft 6 in tall. Her ideal body weight (IBW) is:

a. 110 pounds
b. 120 pounds
c. 130 pounds
d. 140 pounds

13. The numerical average of all the scores in a distribution is the:

a. mean.
b. median.
c. mode.
d. standard deviation.

14. Which illustrates a patient outcome?

a. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute
b. Decline in level of dyspnea between admission and discharge
c. Use of home oxygen therapy
d. Health status at hospital discharge.

15. A patient with peripheral vascular disease and hypertension is advised by his physician to lose weight, stop smoking, and begin a progressive walking program. The nurse knows that the patient is more likely to comply with this advice if he:

a. makes an explicit commitment to change.
b. attends a smoke cessation class.
c. has an external locus of control.
d. requests a referral to the dietician.

16. Which health promotion program is an example of secondary prevention?

a. An elementary school program on the effects of cigarette smoking
b. A blood pressure screening program offered at a senior high-rise
c. A community program about the benefits of increasing activity
d. A television campaign promoting 5 servings of fruit and vegetables daily

17. Patients with a CHD risk equivalent have:

a. not yet had a CHD event.
b. a > 20% risk for a CHD event in 20 years.
c. a maternal uncle with an MI at age 42.
d. no cardiac risk factors.

18. Which is an important predictor of high risk for stroke among patients with atrial fibrillation?

a. History of myocardial infarction
b. Elevated diastolic BP
c. Prior TIA or stroke
d. Men > 75 years of age

19. The clinical diagnosis of obesity in a woman is made by:

a. measuring height and weight and computing body mass index (BMI).
b. measuring waist and hip circumference and computing waist–hip ratio.
c. measuring weight and comparing it to the Metropolitan Life Insurance Company tables.
d. calculating ideal body weight (IBW).

20. What is the first step in the management of dyslipidemia?

a. Assessment of atherosclerosis risk profile
b. Teaching about therapeutic lifestyle changes
c. Treatment with plant stanols/sterols
d. Pharmacotherapy

21. Which is considered a CHD equivalent?

a. Hypertension
b. Alzheimer's dementia
c. Diabetes mellitus
d. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)

22. Which symptoms are consistent with reversible ischemic neurologic deficit (RIND)?

a. Hemiparesis, monoparesis, and aphasia that lasts more than 24 hours but less than 72 hours
b. Dysarthria, weakness, or paralysis that lasts less than 24 hours
c. Aphasia, dysarthria, and hemiparesis that results in permanent deficits.
d. Hemiparesis, weakness, or monoparesis that results in intermittent recovery

23. A 72 year-old male comes to the emergency room with a chief complaint of abdominal pain. Findings from his physical examination demonstrate a palpable, pulsatile mass in the upper abdomen and a bruit in that region. The most probable diagnosis for this patient is:

a. lower extremity occlusive disease.
b. abdominal aortic aneurysm.
c. upper extremity occlusive disease.
d. femoral artery aneurysm.

24. Antihypertensive response of which drug is due to calcium channel blockade?

a. Methyl dopa (Aldomet)
b. Amlodipine (Norvasc)
c. Chlorothiazide (Diuril)
d. Enalapril (Vasotec)

25. The rationale for administering propranolol (Inderal) along with nitroprusside when treating hypertension is to:

a. augment the hypotensive action by blockade of beta-adrenergic receptors in cutaneous vessels.
b. increase renin release.
c. prevent the development of orthostatic hypotension by increasing cardiac output.
d. prevent reflex cardiac stimulation in response to vasodilation.


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